QIC Acadian Ambulance Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• How many proximal long bone fractures qualify as a trauma positive finding in the secondary assessment?
• A definitive care hospital for STEMI patients is a hospital with which capability if transport time is 60 minutes or less?
• Which of the following is a medical positive finding (status 2)?
• 12-lead ECGs should be obtained within 10 minutes when indicated.
• Head injury patients should be ventilated to achieve an arterial CO2 range of?
• Which of the following is an indication for performing a 12-lead EKG?
• What is a key consideration when ventilating a patient with an advanced airway?
• When should a tourniquet be considered in EMS trauma care?
• In neonatal resuscitation for a non-breathing newborn, what is the correct initial sequence?
• Which item is included in the Standardized Call Report items?
• Which of the following is NOT part of the Glasgow Coma Scale?
• Which signs may indicate sepsis requiring urgent evaluation and transport?
• Mandatory bedside equipment for all emergencies includes which item?
• What three components make up the Glasgow Coma Scale?
• A definitive care hospital for non-traumatic pediatric patients is a hospital with what capability?
• Which option is a status 1 adult vital sign criterion?
• Which analgesia option reflects the standing orders for morphine and fentanyl increments?
• Which of the following is an indication for intubation in the adult airway assessment protocol?
• Which ECG finding is characteristic of ventricular fibrillation?
• Which activity best defines the core function of a Quality Improvement Coordinator in EMS?
• In the etiology of arrest, these two medications should be considered for administration only if hyperkalemia is suspected.
• In a mass casualty incident, what does a green tag indicate?
• Oxygen flow rate for CPAP use at 7.5 cmH2O pressure?
• When a patient regains decision-making capacity during EMS transport, clinicians should:
• How many acceptable reasons for diversion of a status 1 or 2 patient are listed?
• Which statement best describes Ketamine assisted ventilation guidelines in the adult airway protocol?
• What is the initial energy dose for cardioversion in atrial fibrillation?
• Which medication is NOT listed under standing orders for a moderate/severe distressed patient with wheezing and/or stridor?
• Which condition would typically contraindicate the use of chewable aspirin in suspected ACS?
• Head injury patients are preferentially transported to a neurosurgery-capable surgical care hospital only if the resulting transport delay is less than how many minutes by ground or air?
• Which statement best describes the role of ETCO2 monitoring in airway management?
• For cardiac arrest patients, when PPV is delivered with a bag-valve mask, the ventilation rate should be...
• When a competent patient refuses treatment, what is essential to document?
• A primary responsibility of a Quality Improvement Coordinator in EMS is to:
• Which statement about CORE status is correct?
• Stroke: transport directly to a level I or II stroke center if the additional transport time does not exceed ___ minutes?
• Which of the following is considered an Hs/Ts factor in cardiac arrest?
• Before administering nitroglycerin, which interaction must be checked for?
• For major burns pain management, which medication can be considered by medical control orders only?
• Naloxone dosing should be titrated to improvements in which clinical parameter?
• Which of the following is a positive indication for spinal motion restriction?
• Intrusion greater than 12 inches in an occupant site is a criterion for which mechanism of injury?
• Torsades de Pointes may benefit from administration of which medication?
• Which statement best describes sepsis evaluation signs related to perfusion?
• Which speed is associated with a motorcycle crash that is a positive indication for spinal motion restriction?
• Which of the following lists the three circumstances in which a patient can be downgraded from status 1 to status 3?
• Which DOA criterion addresses inability to perform resuscitation due to access issues?
• If you suspect pulmonary embolism, what is the immediate EMS focus?
• What is the most effective initial method to control external bleeding?
• How should pediatric drug dosing be determined in the field?
• What is a critical airway consideration for patients with facial burns or inhalation injury?
• When is epinephrine indicated for EMS patients?
• What does a Green tag indicate in START triage?
• In symptomatic bradycardia, external pacing is indicated. What rate should be set at?
• What information is typically documented in an EMS patient care report (PCR)?
• Which describes Yellow tag criteria in START triage?
• What is the first priority in any medical patient assessment?
• Which pediatric airway condition typically affects children older than 2, is bacterial, and presents with drooling and possible stridor?
• Which pediatric airway condition is viral, affecting children under 2 with fever, gradual onset, and no drooling?
• In the refusal of care scenario, which condition constitutes risk to self or others?
• A patient with a GCS less than what requires intubation if no immediately reversible causes are found?
• What is the correct EMS approach when delivery occurs en route or at scene?
• According to Ketamine protocol, which statement is true?
• If unable to differentiate SVT vs A Fib, what cardioversion dose should be used?
• What is a key consideration when treating suspected opioid overdose?
• Which sequence correctly outlines the initial management steps if delivery occurs before hospital arrival?
• Which tool is commonly used to screen for stroke in the field?
• What signs suggest hypovolemic shock in a trauma patient?
• Which signs indicate pediatric dehydration requiring urgent assessment?
• Which statement about end-tidal CO2 monitoring during airway management is true?
• Which item is included in infection control PPE in EMS aside from gloves and mask?
• What does capnography measure in prehospital patients?
• What bronchodilator is commonly used for wheezing and what is the preferred route?
• Which of the following is a trauma secondary finding (status 2)?
• Which actions are standard precautions EMS should follow?
• Which of the following is NOT an acceptable reason for diversion?
• For all interfacility transports, the medical control contact is the physician at the sending facility. Which statement is true about CORE status in this context?
• Under standing orders for analgesia, the increments are:
• What is a fundamental principle of prehospital airway management?
• What is the immediate treatment for suspected hypoglycemia if the patient is conscious and able to swallow?
• Which of the following is a trauma secondary assessment finding?
• Which action best describes standard precautions in EMS?
• Which airway adjunct is contraindicated in a patient with a gag reflex?
• Which of the following is NOT among the eight items included in the Standardized Call Report?
• Which of the following best describes the role of rapid transport in postpartum hemorrhage management?
• What is the minimum duration to continue resuscitation attempts?
• Lividity is described as which of the following DOA indicators?
• A status 3 patient is defined as a patient who requires what level of care at a general care hospital?
• Which statement about the APGAR score is true?
• If mechanical capture is not achieved during external pacing, what adjustment should be made first?
• In EMS, intraosseous access is typically chosen over IV access in which scenario?
• What is the initial energy dose for cardioversion in SVT and atrial flutter?
• In the etiology of arrest, which combination of medications should be considered for hyperkalemia?
• What is implied consent in EMS?
• In the adult airway confirm-reconfirm protocol, which method is second in accuracy for confirming tube placement?
• Which trauma scenario is listed as a DOA criterion?
• Permissive hypotension is indicated for pregnant patients and pediatric patients.
• For interfacility transports, who is the medical control contact?
• Like 6 anginas equivalents, which symptom is listed as an angina equivalent?
• How should EMS handle a patient who is competent but refuses treatment?
• Nitroglycerin SL should be administered to an ACS patient at a dose of how many sprays, every how many minutes, until what condition?
• Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of unreliable patients?
• Scene time goal for status 1 patients?
• Who is the medical control contact for all interfacility transports?
• What is the typical purpose of a PCR in EMS?
• If the patient elects a hospital that is not the definitive care hospital, what form should be obtained?
• What is the purpose of airway suctioning in an unresponsive patient?
• In START triage, which color tag corresponds to a patient who is not breathing?
• What is the normal ETCO2 range?
• Which quality improvement tool helps identify root causes in EMS?
• Which of the following describes the Red tag criteria in START triage?
• The theory of permissive hypotension involves withholding fluid resuscitation until the systolic blood pressure is less than what value?
• According to the spinal motion restriction criteria, adult falls from greater than how many feet are a positive indication?
• ____ can be considered by medical control orders only for pain management in the cases of severe pain resulting from major burns
• What PPE components are essential for infection control in EMS?
• Pediatric patients are defined as ___ years old or younger.
• Which condition is a pericardial tamponade in the Hs & Ts framework?
• Traumatic brain injury patients require what type of fluid resuscitation to maintain cerebral perfusion compared with other patients?
• Which of the following is a trauma secondary assessment finding (status 2)?
• In a seizing patient, midazolam can be given in __ mg increments, to a max dose of __ mg, IN/IV by standing orders
• Scene time goal for status 2 patients (medical or trauma)?
• Which of the following is NOT an indication for a 12-lead EKG?
• If the patient's hospital of choice is not the definitive care hospital, what form should be obtained at the time the patient makes their choice after being advised of the associated risks?
• Which of the following conditions is among those where the closest hospital is the definitive care hospital?
• In neonatal resuscitation, when should CPR be started?
• In a pregnant patient with unilateral abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, which condition is most critical to consider?
• What is the primary reason for airway patency in prehospital care?
• Which elements should be documented in a patient care report to support triage and treatment decisions?
• In START triage, what does Green color indicate?
• In a patient with suspected ectopic pregnancy, what is a critical action during transport?
• In symptomatic bradycardia, what is the initial milliamps setting for external pacing?
• Which crash scenario constitutes a positive indication for spinal motion restriction?
• Which finding on exam would raise concern for a tension pneumothorax?
• Which scenario is a DOA criterion?
• Under the DOA policy, what is the reduced resuscitation duration if ET or King airway is in place and ETCO2 < 10?
• Which sign is NOT typically associated with dehydration in a child?
• Waiting on scene for helicopter transport is permissible only if the air transport ETA is less than how many minutes?
• Which statement accurately describes one of the trauma secondary findings used to classify status 2 patients?
• Which is an indication for a 12-lead EKG after cardioversion?
• A definitive care hospital for trauma patients is a hospital with which capability?
• In the post resuscitation protocol, amiodarone maintenance infusion is ordered at what rate (mg/min)?
• Stroke patients: follow regional stroke system protocols where available; otherwise transport to which center?
• What is the first-line medication for pediatric bronchospasm?
• Which statement best describes the role of IV versus IO access in EMS?
• Which of the following is a criterion for termination of resuscitation efforts under policy?
• What is the purpose of the Pediatric Assessment Triangle (PAT)?
• What weight-estimating tool is commonly used in pediatrics to guide dosing?
• Spinal Motion Restriction: patients younger than ___ years old require spinal motion restriction?
• Which of the following is NOT a component of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale?
• Which statement correctly states the maximum and minimum GCS scores?
• What is the initial management of heat-related illness?
• In high-risk auto crash criteria, which intrusion distance qualifies as a high-risk indicator?
• In field management of postpartum hemorrhage when possible, which step is essential?
• In START triage, which color tag indicates immediate life-threatening injuries requiring rapid intervention?
• Blast or explosion injury is a positive indication for spinal motion restriction.
• What is the recorded line number for Standardized Call Report and contacting medical control?
• A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 8 typically indicates which of the following?
• Which scenario is listed as a DOA criterion involving underwater events?
• For ROSC patients, what capability must a definitive care hospital have?
• What is a typical initial naloxone dosing strategy for suspected opioid overdose?
• Secondary trauma finding (status 2) - which is true?
• If indicated, within how many minutes should 12-lead ECGs be obtained?
• Why is EMS scene safety essential?
• Which tool is used to quickly estimate weight to guide dosing in pediatric emergencies?
• What is the standard aspirin dose for suspected ACS in the EMS setting?
• Can a status 3 or 4 patient be diverted?
• Which device generally delivers the highest oxygen concentration to a spontaneously breathing patient?
• A definitive care hospital for ROSC patients is a hospital with which capability if the additional transport time does not exceed 15 minutes?
• Before administering nitroglycerin, what critical checks must be completed per EMS protocol?
• What is the proper route for the first-line pediatric bronchodilator therapy?
• Which statement best defines a distracting injury in the context of spinal motion restriction?
• In EMS, intraosseous access is indicated in which scenario?
• In the Hs & Ts framework for cardiac arrest, thrombus refers to a blockage in which vessels?
• In a seizing patient, Midazolam can be given by standing orders via which routes?
• Which of the following best describes the components of the Pediatric Assessment Triangle (PAT)?
• Why is Broselow tape used in pediatric care?
• Unresponsiveness due to trauma is a positive indication for spinal motion restriction.